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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 11:29

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If Jesus was crucified by Governor Pontius Pilate, why does the Quran deny his death?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why do I sometimes hear full conversations when I am alone?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

One day, I happened to walk past where my crush was with friends. Then all of a sudden they start laughing, and someone maybe him, goes "freaking (my name) with her freaking hair!" Can anyone offer insights into this? We're in middle school.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.